« Home | Next: Is it a Lust for Power? »
| Next: Responsibility, Accountability, and Rights »
| Next: A Few Things.. »
| Next: Applied Theology »
| Next: Hmmmmmm....... »
| Next: Just so You'll Know »





Feed Link

Study Help

Real Help

    Needed Prayers



About Kc



    "You are really cool you are married to an European!! How cooler can you be??"
    Fisherman Pecheur

    "Smarty Pants"
    Mad Matt

    "Oh, you did not ask for Bonhoeffer's opinion did you? You wanted mine..."
    the SOFYST

    "You are like the master at this "feelings" stuff!
    Kind Kristi

    "I enjoy your comments, but they are always delightfully enigmatic"
    Dyspraxic Fundamentalist

Sunday, April 10, 2005

The Common Thread

Several recent articles within the small group of blogs I now frequent have revived my interest on several points of faith I once considered "settled once and for all" (in truth I never accept that however, also in truth I must admit I practice it all to often). The scholars I study here have discussed the relationship of the Jews (Israel), the Gentiles (Christians) and God's plan. I do not consider myself qualified to dissent in any way so I offer this post as a question, not an answer. Is there an obvious theme throughout the scripture that we overlook when we begin to dissect a singular account of God dealing with men? I take note that Adam's instructions vary from those to Noah, and to Abraham, and Moses, and so forth and so on and that even the means by which God communicated varied greatly. The one thing that seems consistent was that each must believe God's Word. It seems that the relative success and/or failure for each was totally dependant upon the extent to which each exercised their faith in His Word. I now consider the consequences in each of these examples. God was specific as to what would occur (and to who it would occur) if His word was rejected. They too, it seems, vary greatly. Could this account for a distinction or an instruction and consequence specific to Israel alone? Is it possible that our own instruction from God (Hebrews 1:1,2) is consistent in this same manner in that we too must now believe in the Word of God in order to succeed and avoid the consequences of failing to do so? Is the Word of God sufficient for all men throughout all ages?

Labels: , ,


Post a Comment